For the last year-or-so, I've recommended OpenDNS to those who attend the same church as I as a way to gain more control over the media content coming into their homes. I've used OpenDNS for many years and have found it to be a very useful tool when combined with open dialog (...or maybe more aptly stated, OpenDIALOG!) with our teens about what is acceptable content in our home.
In an effort to keep up on the latest "hacks" to get around OpenDNS, I'm hearing that people can simply use an IP address in the URL and essentially bypass OpenDNS. Being a software developer with a network background, I completely understand why OpenDNS, in its basic form, would not be involved in an IP address request/transaction where the IP address is already known.
I looked up my church website's IP address, and entered this address into the url of my browser, and it didn't resolve. So I blacklisted the website name....then, using both the IP address and the website, OpenDNS blocked the website with my custom message. Hmmm...unexpected. Then, when trying to view sites where I've blacklisted them by name and attempt to access them by IP address, the browser tries, but returns a blank screen. Hmmm...inconsistent.
So, I'm pretty confused right now as to whether OpenDNS is actually handling both IP addresses as well as website names in its attempt to filter by the users' selected categories. I seems like a gaping hole if users are able to get around a filtering system by simply pinging a website directly to get the IP address, then entering that address into the URL.
Anyone who can confirm or refute the idea that OpenDNS is blocking by both web name and IP address?
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